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A mistake in using Mathematical Induction
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Question A sequence of real numbers {an} is defined as follows: a0
= a1 = 1, a2
= 3 and an+3
= 3an+2 – an+1 – 2an where n = 0, 1, 2, … Let
bk = ak+2 – ak+1
– ak , where k = 0, 1, 2, … Prove that bn
= 2bn-1 " n Î N . |
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‘Solution’ Find
the conceptual mistake in the following proof: Let
P(n) be the proposition : bn = 2bn-1 For
P(1), b0
= a2 – a1 –
a0 = 3 – 1 – 1 = 1 b1
= a3 – a2 –
a1 = ( =
2(3 – 1 – 1) = 2 \ b1 = 2b0 . \ P(1) is true. Assume
P(k) is true for some kÎ N, that is, bk = 2bk-1 (*) For
P(k + 1), bk+1
= ak+3 – ak+2
– ak+1 = (3ak+2 – ak+1
– 2ak) – ak+2 – ak+1 =
2(ak+2 – ak+1 – ak) =
2bk \ P(k + 1) is true. By
the Principle of Mathematical Induction, P(n) is
true " n Î N. |
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The Mistake In the proof of P(k +
1) above, there is no where in
which the inductive hypothesis, that is, (*) is used. In fact, the proof does
not need to use Mathematical Induction at all. Just write, bn = an+2 – an+1
– an =
(3an+1 – an – 2an-1) – an+1 – an
=
2(an+1 – an – an-1) =
2bn-1 The
proof is already completed. |
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Exercise If
you insist to use mathematical induction, the proof of P(k
+ 1) above should be changed in
order that (*) is used. It
will be quite tedious to write the proof out, can you do this
? |
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